Online Cisco Certification Exam–Pass4side

pass4side CISCO 350-018 Demo

1.When building a non-passive FTP data connection, the FTP client:

A: Indicates the port number to be used for sending data over the command channel via the PORT command

B: Receives all data on port 20, the same port the FTP server daemon sends data from

C: Uses port 20 for establishing the command channel and port 21 for the data channel

D: Initiates the connection from an ephemeral port to the RFC specified port of the server

Correct Answers:? A

2.What statement is true regarding the following output of the show interface Fast Ethernet0 command?

A: The interface is operating in 100mb Full duplex.

B: There is a high rate of collisions recorded on the interface.

C: There is a physical problem with the connection since there are recorded Runts and CRCs.

D: Collisions, runts and CRC?s are normal for a 100mb half-duplex connection.

Correct Answers:? D

3.In order to send vendor-specific information about callback from a RADIUS server to a Cisco router, a network administrator would use:

A: Check item 26, vendor code 9, lcp:callback-dialstring=3175551407

B: Check item 9, vendor code 26, lcp:callback-dialstring=3175551407

C: Check item 9, reply attribute 26, lcp:callback-dialstring=3175551407

D: Reply attribute 9, vendor code 26, lcp:callback-dialstring=3175551407

E: Reply attribute 26, vendor code 9, lcp:callback-dialstring=3175551407

Correct Answers:? E

4.Which protocols can be authenticated? (multiple answer)(Choose Four)

A:HTTP

B:FTP

C:TFTP

D:Telnet

E:SMTP

Correct Answers:? A, B, D, E

5.The BGP backdoor command:

A: Changes the distance of an iBGP route to 20

B: Changes the distance of an eBGP route to 200

C: Changes the distance of an IGP route to 200

D: Changes the distance of an IGP route to 20

E: Does not change the distance of the route

Correct Answers:? B

6.What are the potential dangers of running the Finger service on hosts?

A: Finger opens a port that data can be transferred to, thus enabling an intruder to access password files.

B: If Finger has a trust relationship to another server, the associated port can be exploited for unauthorized logon.

C: Finger allows users to logon physically to a system if the service aborts.

D: Some Finger services have forwarding capabilities that allow intruders to mask their identities when gaining access to the service.

Correct Answers:? D

7.An administrator is attempting to prioritize any audio or video clips that are served by the Human Resources web server over the static content like text and graphics as part of its http flows. What mechanism best accomplishes this?

A: LLC

B: CBWFQ

C: NBAR

D: LFI

E: FRF.8

Correct Answers:? C

8.Assume this network has just been brought up. If a user on device 10.1.1.10 pinged device 10.1.3.30 how would Router A forward the ICMP?s?

A: Router A would forward the ICMP?s out both serial 0 and Ethernet 1.

B: Router A would only forward the ICMP?s out Ethernet 1.

C: Router A would only forward the ICMP?s out Serial 0.

D: Router A would not forward the ICMP out any interface.

Correct Answers:? C

9.What are the only two parts found in a RADIUS user profile?

A: Reply attributes, check attributes

B: Reply items, check items

C: Check items, reply attributes

D: Check attributes, reply items

Correct Answers:? C

10.Which three protocols are typically required to tunnel IPSec traffic, including Multicast?(Choose Three)

A:ESP

B:NTP

C:SCEP

D:ISAKMP

E:GRE

F:CEP

Correct Answers:? A, D, E

From:http://download.pass4side.com/350-018.zip

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Exam CISCO-642-071 Demo

1.Your customer asks you to design a voice mail only solution that works with the current network topology. They have 14,000 users on a UNIX-based e-mail platform.
All data servers, including the new Active Directory domain controllers you will be installing, are behind the company firewall. They want to place the Unity servers in the phone room with the TDM telephone system where there is no network access? from behind the firewall.
Which statement is true?
A: This will not create any problems.
B: The Active Directory servers can be separated from the Unity servers.
C: You should have them supply access to the network from behind the firewall to the phone room for all the Unity servers.
D: You should have them supply access to the network from behind the firewall to the phone room for one of the Unity servers and set up that Unity server as the firewall bridgehead for the rest of the Unity servers.
Correct Answers:? C
2.Your customer has a fully distributed message store environment across WAN links that run at 256k. There are 500 subscribers in each physical site. There are five sites and four of them maintain mail stores. Cisco Unity design requirements state that at a minimum you must have how many Unity servers?
A: 2
B: 4
C: 5
D: 8
Correct Answers:? B
3.A customer maintains a wholly centralized electronic messaging environment in a single data center, physically located in Denver. The customer uses Microsoft Exchange exclusively, and at this time has a distributed, Cisco CallManager environment consisting of three separate clusters. These clusters support the Denver data center plus three large remote sites in Colorado Springs, Boulder, and Montrose.
The customer?s plans call for moving from their centralized, 10 year old Legacy voice mail system to a Unified Messaging system. You offer Cisco Unity as a potential solution.
Given the customer?s topology for call processing and messaging, what is your recommendation?
A: You recommend centralized and distributed Unity servers. There are many choices available to you because of the inherent call processingn flexibility built into a pure Cisco CallManager design. You recommend a hybrid solution to demonstrate to the customer the flexibility of the product.
B: You cannot provide an initial design at this time. The customer?s need for three Cisco CallManager clusters has brought the design process to a standstill. You MUST go back and convince the customer to fully collapse the CallManager clusters for Cisco Unity to fit into their environment.
C: You recommend centralized Unity systems. Unity MUST reside as physically close as possible to the message stores it will be servicing. Also, since Cisco Unity servers are capable of servicing more than one Cisco CallManager cluster, you decide to offer a centralized messaging and distributed call processing design.
D: You recommend distributed Unity systems. Unity MUST reside as physically close as possible to the CallManager clusters, and Cisco Unity servers MUST maintain a one-to-one relationship to the number of Call Manager clusters in the design. At a minimum, you must provide a three Cisco Unity solution, and they must be distributed to physically mirror the layout of the Cisco CallManager topology.
Correct Answers:? C
4.You meet with a customer who is currently collapsing their IBM/Lotus Notes environment from a multi-site, distributed layout to a single data center in Indianapolis. With offices across the United States, (35 of them), and a distributed mix of Legacy non-networked PBXs, you have a very complex environment to try and onverge.
The customer also maintains a wholly distributed Legacy voice mail environment, but wants to treat the data center as a completely new installation with no existing infrastructure with regard to voice mail, and as such is very flexible with voice mail migration options.
When you explain some of the potential technical options given their existing environment, they agree that a Cisco CallManager/Cisco Unity solution is optimal. They have a limited budget this fiscal year, and need to slowly move from this distributed PBX/Electronic Messaging layout to a Cisco solution over the next two years.
What do you recommend to the customer?
A: You offer them centralized Unity for Exchange as a voice mail replacement, since their Notes infrastructure is distributed. Since Unity for Domino CANNOT fit in this environment for a number of reasons, this is their only option.
B: You cannot help them today, since moving slowly will not work given the need to perform ip and replace of PBXs at each of the remote sites. Unity simply cannot fit into their current environment. If they had the budget to perform ip and replace then you could help them.
C: You offer them distributed Unity servers on the edge, since Unity MUST reside as physically close as possible to the Legacy PBXs. You put the CallManager rollout on hold as well, until the customer has the funds necessary to support a ip and replace strategy for the Legacy PBX?s. Distributed Unity servers will also be able to better support the migration strategy you know they need for their centralized voice mail servers. In your next meeting, you MUST discuss the voice mail replacement/migration strategy with the customer.
D: Since they are very flexible with the pathway you lead them to, you offer an initial centralized Unity server layout. Since they will be collapsing at least some of their PBX?s to a CallManager layout, and they will be fully centralizing their Notes Messaging infrastructure, you have the initial Cisco Unity servers in the data center service those users who will be on the first round of migration from the legacy PBXs to the centralized CallManagers. Over time you will add Unity servers as needed to support the customer?s timelines and budget. Cisco Unity can even support a pual PBX integration in the data center, if needed.
Correct Answers:? D
5.A customer has all their Exchange 2000 servers located in a centralized messaging configuration at their headquarters (HQ), which also serves as their regional data center. All e-mail users use Outlook, regardless of their location.
The customer has two Legacy PBX?s that Unity can support located at the data center. These Legacy PBX?s are used only by the users located at HQ. The remote users use CallManager. The breakdown for the number of users on each system is:
Legacy PBX 1 = 6000 phones
Legacy PBX 2 = 5000 phones
CallManager Cluster =? 6000 remote IP Phones
The Exchange 2000 servers are configured into Active-Active clusters and support 18,000 mailboxes, with up to 3,000 mailboxes on each cluster. The customer will allocate extra Exchange servers to support Unity. The breakdown is:
Exchange 2000 cluster 1 = 3,000 mailboxes
Exchange 2000 cluster 2 = 3,000 mailboxes
Exchange 2000 cluster 3 = 2,000 mailboxes
Exchange 2000 cluster 4 = 2,500 mailboxes
Exchange 2000 cluster 5 = 1,000 mailboxes
Exchange 2000 cluster 6 = 3,000 mailboxes
Exchange 2000 cluster 7 = 3,000 mailboxes
Exchange 2000 cluster 8 = 1,000 mailboxes
All Exchange 2000 clusters are installed into the same Windows 2000 site and into the same Exchange 2000 Admin group and routing group.
All users, regardless of whether they are local or remote are grouped on separate databases in different storage groups on the Exchange 2000 clusters. However, there is not a single Exchange 2000 cluster that is dedicated to a remote location. All clusters have both local and remote users logically grouped on them.
During the planning phase, all Exchange 2000 clusters were found to have enough capacity to support Unified Messaging except for Exchange 2000 cluster 5. The disk arrays used by this cluster were upgraded and now there is enough capacity to support Unified Messaging.
The customer wants administration of all subscribers to be easy. They also want to have a Unity server performing dual integration with Legacy PBX 2 and the CallManager cluster.
Given this scenario, how many Unity servers are needed and how should they be configured to support the eight Exchange 2000 clusters?
A: Unity can only support five Exchange 2000 clusters so you must have at least two Unity servers. You can then connect one Unity server to one Legacy PBX and the CallManager cluster and then connect the other Unity server to the other Legacy PBX.
B: You need four Unity servers and you need to set up a separate partner server for each Unity server. You can then connect one Unity server to two Exchange 2000 clusters. Two Unity servers can connect to Legacy PBX 1, one Unity server can connect to Legacy PBX 2 and CallManager, and one Unity server can connect to CallManager.
C: You should have three 72-port Unity servers connected as follows: one Unity server for Legacy PBX 1, one Unity server for Legacy PBX 2 and CallManager, and one Unity server for CallManager. Since the 6000 remote users are spread across all eight Exchange 2000 clusters, each Unity server should connect to all eight Exchange 2000 clusters and one partner server should be used for all three Unity servers.
D: You should have three 72-port Unity servers connected as follows: one Unity server for Legacy PBX1, one Unity server for Legacy PBX 2 and CallManager, and one Unity server for CallManager. Since the 6000 remote users are spread across all eight Exchange 2000 clusters, only two Unity servers need to connect to all eight clusters. The third Unity server only needs to connect to the four clusters that have local users.
Correct Answers:? C
6.In all distributed messaging configurations, Unity must be collocated with CallManager first, so it will use the call processing deployment model first and then the messaging deployment model. How does this affect a customer if they collapse their distributed messaging configurations to a centralized model?
A: A centralized model will be satisfied with Unity collocated with either CallManager or the messaging servers.
B: All Unity servers are able to continue to run and physically remain in their present location even while the messaging servers are moved.
C: In any messaging deployment model, Unity must be collocated with the messaging systems and then consideration must be given to CallManager.
D: All Unity servers must be taken offline and remain in their present location while the messaging servers are moved from the remote locations to the centralized location.
Correct Answers:? C
7.Your customer has 9,000 users. They request that you configure a voice mail only solution. Without planning for the domain controllers and global catalog servers, what is the minimum number of Exchange servers you need on which to locate the users?
A: 1
B: 2
C: 3
D: 5
Correct Answers:? C
8.In a Cisco Unity voice messaging only configuration with failover, how many Exchange 2000 routing groups are needed if all Exchange 2000 servers are centralized into one data center, but all users are remotely connected?
A: You only need one routing group.
B: You need one routing group for each remote location.
C: It is more important to install Unity into the same Windows 2000 site and remote routing group.
D: It depends on how the remote users are connected to Unity. If they are using IMAP, they should be able to use any number of routing groups.
Correct Answers:? A
9.When installing Cisco Unity into a Lotus Domino messaging environment, one requirement is to install at least one Cisco Unity server per Domino _____.
A: site
B: domain
C: nsf group
D: routing group
Correct Answers:? B
10.Click the Exhibit button.
CallManager Cluster A and Unity use extension range 1000?500. CallManager Cluster B and Unity use extension range 3000?450. CallManager Cluster C and Unity use extension range 4200?400.
Your customer wants to deploy Unified Messaging. Exchange stores are local at the data center. Digital networking is an absolute requirement without using access codes.
What is the best solution?
A: Site C needs to have all the servers reinstalled as part of A&B.com.
B: A unique dialing domain is created per Unity location. There is no requirement for one directory.
C: A completely unique ?dialing location? is created in CallManager. Unity is assigned to that location.
D: Future growth is planned for by allowing all Unity servers to be in different forests, but be part of the same dialing domain.
Correct Answers:? A

From:http://download.pass4side.com/642-071.zip

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Cisco certification 642-381 exam sutdy guides

1.You have been asked to act
ivate the Stateful Firewall 000-639 on a Contivity VPN Router Rls. 6.0 system. How should you perform this task? (Choose two.) IBM certifications
?
A:Install a license key.
B:Turn on tunnel filters.
C:Turn on interface filters.
D:Turn on Nat Interface filters.
E:Select a firewall option and reboot the Contivity.
Correct Answers:? A, E
?
2.Which type of interface NAT should be configured to allow clients on a private network of a Contivity to access the Internet? 050-695
?
A: port
B: static
C: NAT traversal
D: port forwarding
Correct Answers:? A????
3.Your customer is very concerned about security and wants to encrypt the company data. What encrypts data at the session layer of the OSI model?
?
A: SSL
B: L2TP
C: PPTP
D: IPSEC
Correct Answers:? A
?
4.A customer has a Contivity 1750 running Release 6.0 at a remote site. The Contivity rebooted from an unknown cause. You need to determine the cause of the reboot on the Contivity. What would you do to find information prior to the reset?
?
A: Call Nortel Support.
B: Check the event log.
C: Check the system log.
D: Check branch office tunnel statistics.
Correct Answers:? C
?
5.A customer enables the Stateful Firewall feature on the Contivity Novell,Inc Certification VPN Router Rls. 6.0 system. What is known about the traffic flow?
?
A: Interface filters are set by default to deny tunnel traffic.
B: Non-tunneled traffic is disallowed, but tunnel traffic is allowed.
C: Tunneled traffic is disallowed, but non-tunneled traffic is allowed.
D: All non-management traffic is disallowed until the rules are configured.
Correct Answers:? D
?
6.Your customer needs to reboot its Contivity with recovery diskettes. Which maintenance option is not available using the Web user interface menu?
?
A: LDAP backup
B: file system maintenance
C: application of new code updates
D: ability to view event log messages
Correct Answers:? A
?
7.You have been tasked with installing a Contivity 642-381 at a customer site. You suspect the redundant power supply became unseated during shipping. You should see a warning message on the Contivity system. Which status screen will show the warning message?
?
A: Statistics Screen
B: Event log Screen
C: Security Log Screen
D: Health Check Screen
Correct Answers:? D
?
8.You are tasked with configuring PPTP user tunnel connections for remote subscribers. The subscribers will belong to a new group called the BASE/SALES group. The PPTP user tunnel configuration will be configured on an existing Contivity 1050 system. Which statement is true regarding this configuration?
?
A: The Base group cannot pass its attributes to other groups.
B: The new group will inherit permissions from the BASE group.
C: The new group will not inherit permissions from the BASE group.
D: The Base/Sales group will automatically have its own default system parameters.
Correct Answers:? B
?
9.A customer is attempting to access the Contivity using a PPTP client and is unable to connect. Inside the Event Log on the Contivity the following error is displayed, ?IP address assignment failed.? What would resolve this issue?
?
A: Configure an IP address pool for the user.
B: Configure a DNS server for the group to which the user is connecting.
C: Configure the group with the user you are connecting to with an IP address pool.
D: Configure DHCP relay for the interface on the Contivity to which the user is connecting.
Correct Answers:? C
?
10.When configuring the Contivity 1750 system, how are the management IP address and subnet mask initially configured?
?
A: The management IP address and subnet mask are configured by using the serial interface.
B: The management IP address and subnet mask will be automatically provided by a DHCP server.
C: When powered up, the Contivity will initially be configured with a default management IP address and subnet mask.
D: Having the management IP address and subnet mask configured is not initially required and can be configured from a web browser at anytime.
Correct Answers:? A

From:http://download.pass4side.com/642-381.zip

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pass4side cisco 640-822 certification

1. After configuring a Cisco WAAS deployment using WCCPv2, you find that you can successfully ping a data center server from a workstation in the branch office. However, when you attempt to start one of the optimized applications, the application cannot communicate with the server. What is the most likely cause?
A. There is insufficient disk space on either the edge or core WAE.
B. You configured half-duplex mode on the WAE interfaces.
C. You configured autonegotiate duplex mode on the WAE interfaces.
D. You deployed the WAE on the same subnet as the users or servers.
Answer: D

2. When implementing Windows authentication for WAE management, what is the maximum allowable time skew between each WAE and the Windows domain controller?
A. 1 second
B. 5 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
Answer: D

3. Your customer plans to implement Cisco WAAS using four WAE appliances in a load-balanced configuration. Which feature must be supported on the switches to which the WAE appliances are attached?
A. redirect exclusion
B. Layer 2 redirection
C. WCCPv2
D. WCCPv2 or PBR
Answer: C

4. Your customer has deployed Cisco WAAS using ACE for traffic interception. The customer reports that traffic is not being optimized. Which command would you use to troubleshoot network interception?
A. WAE-CORE# show wccp routers
B. WAE-CORE# show ip access-lists
C. ACE/Admin# show wccp routers
D. ACE/Admin# show rserver detail
E. router# show wccp services
Answer: D

5. Your customer reports that traffic has never been received by the remote device after deploying Cisco WAAS using WCCPv2 in an off-path configuration. Which two parameters should you verify? (Choose two.)
A. IP SLAs
B. WAE subnet
C. router IP address
D. routing configuration
E. service group redirection
Answer: BE

6. You have configured a Central Manager WAE cluster for your customer. After a technician accidentally unplugs the power cord from the primary Central Manager WAE, the network administrator calls you to complain that the standby Central Manager WAE did not automatically assume the primary role. What should you tell this administrator?
A. You must manually initiate failover and fallback processes on the WAE.
B. You should verify that the datafeed.pollrate setting is configured properly.
C. You must manually copy the Central Manager database to the standby Central Manager WAE.
D. You should make sure the two Central Manager WAE appliances are on the same subnet.
Answer: A

7. When must WCCPv2 redirect exclusion be configured on the routers?
A. when redirect in is used on any interface
B. when redirect in is used on the LAN interface only
C. when redirect in is used on the WAN interface only
D. when redirect out is used on any interface
E. when redirect out is used on the LAN interface only
F. when redirect out is used on the WAN interface only
Answer: D

8. How many IP addresses are required for an in-line card in a redundant, serially clustered configuration?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. four
Answer: A

9. Which two symptoms would you expect to observe in a TCP trace if a Cisco WAE that was optimizing connections fails? (Choose two.)
A. The receiving node receives TCP segments with invalid sequence numbers and resets the connection.
B. The secondary WAE takes over the connection and the receiving node sees nothing.
C. The receiving node continues normally because it has a session to the originating node.
D. All optimized TCP connections handled by that WAE are reset.
E. All optimized TCP connections are taken over by the receiving node.
Answer: AD

10. How can you verify that the WAE has joined a Microsoft Windows domain correctly?
A. Execute the show windows-domain command on the WAE.
B. Click the Show Authentication Status button in Central Manager.
C. Use the Windows nbtstat command.
D. Use the Windows netstat command.
Answer: B

11. In a Cisco WAAS deployment, what should you check first if your customer is reporting poor performance across all optimized applications?
A. Verify that full duplex is configured on all interfaces.
B. Verify that only one Central Manager WAE is set to active.
C. Verify that PBR has a route map for each direction of traffic flow.
D. Verify that WCCP is configured with one service group in the path of each direction of traffic flow.
Answer: A

12. Your customer is using firewalls. What must be permitted to pass through firewalls in order to allow WAE autodiscovery?
A. TCP SYN-ACK with data
B. TCPoptions
C. TCP port 139
D. TCP port 445
Answer: B

13. Your customer has configured each Cisco WAE to belong to multiple device groups for monitoring purposes. However, the customer wants to ensure that the policies are applied to the device from one specific device group. What should you do?
A. You should configure an explicit policy device group.
B. You should configure the other device groups as monitoring-only.
C. You should rejoin the WAE to the desired device group.
D. You must remove the WAE from all other device groups.
Answer: A

14. How do you access the WAE Central Manager GUI?
A. http://(ip_addr_of_WAE)
B. https://(ip_addr_of_WAE):443
C. https://(ip_addr_of_WAE):8080
D. https://(ip_addr_of_WAE):8443
Answer: D

15. How many baseline device groups can be configured for the acceleration feature set?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. as many as needed
Answer: A

From:?http://download.pass4side.com/640-822.zip

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pass4side 310-330 DEMO

SUN 310-330
Sun Certified Systems Installer for Sun Cluster 3.X

Q&A DEMO

http://www.pass4side.com/
pass4side,The Most Realistic Practice Exams!
Http://www.pass4side.com pass4side Help you pass any IT Exams
pass4side 310-330

1. Where is the Explorer output sent after an installation?
A. sunsolve.sun.com
B. clusterdata.sun.com
C. the Symptom Resolution Database
D. the Explorer Database in your time zone
Answer: D
2. Which three deliverables must be included in every Sun Cluster 3.x installation? (Choose three.)
A. A Quorum device must be configured.
B. Explorer must be run and the output must be uploaded.
C. An administrative workstation must be identified, installed, and configured.
D. The Cluster must be EIS-compliant and the WINGS form must be completed.
E. The SunCluster 3.x Post Install Template must be filled out and sent to clusterdata.sun.com
Answer: BDE
3. Which is a benefit of providing cluster installation documentation through WINGS?
A. WINGS templates are distributed on the EIS CD-ROM for easy access.
B. WINGS is publicly available on the Internet and thus accessible anywhere.
C. WINGS can automatically provide email copies of documentation for the customer.
D. WINGS provides consistently formatted documents with the legal requirements in the proper places.
Answer: D
4. If you try to add a LogicalHostname or SharedAddress resource in Sun Cluster 3.0 without having any NAFO groups
existing on the interfaces being used, what happens?
A. The creation of the resource fails.
B. The creation of the resource succeeds, but you will not be able to enable the resource.
C. The command tries to create PNM groups automatically for you and, if successful, creates the resource.
D. There is no problem. You are not required to have NAFO groups for all interfaces being used for LogicalHostname
and SharedAddress resources.
Answer: C
5. In SC3.0, which two must be true for all adapters that are members of the same NAFO group? (Choose two.)
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pass4side 310-330

A. They must all use different MAC addresses.
B. They must all be connected to the same subnet.
C. You must have an /etc/hostname.adp file for all of them.
D. You must have an /etc/hostname.adp file for exactly one of them.
Answer: BD
6. What is different about in.mpathd running for IPMP in Sun Cluster 3.1 from in.mpathd running in a non-clustered
Solaris environment?
A. In the cluster, in.mpathd automatically records its state in the CCR.
B. In the cluster, in.mpathd communicates with its counterpart on the other node.
C. In the cluster, in.mpathd can automatically cause application resource failovers.
D. Nothing is different about in.mpathd in the two examples.
Answer: D
7. Sun Cluster 3.x software resolves name service lookups from which two network information tables? (Choose two.)
A. hosts
B. ethers
C. passwd
D. networks
E. netmasks
Answer: AE
8. You have two 220R servers with internal CD-ROMs in a cluster, each connected to a pair of D2 storage arrays. Which
step is required to ensure there are no SCSI conflicts?
A. Set use-nvramrc? to false on both nodes.
B. On both nodes, set scsi-initiator-id variable to 6.
C. On one node, set the scsi-initiator-id variable to 6 and leave the second node set to 7.
D. On one node, use the nvramrc to set scsi-initiator-id properties for each external host bus adapter to 6.
Answer: D
9. Which modification to the MANPATH variable will include the Sun Cluster 3.x man page for the scinstall command?
A. export PATH=$PATH:/usr/cluster/man
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B. export MANPATH=$MANPATH:/usr/cluster/bin
C. export MANPATH=$MANPATH:/usr/cluster/man
D. export MANPATH=$MANPATH:/opt/SUNWcluster/man
Answer: C
10. You have clustered two v880 servers which have internal FCAL drives and you need to enable Sun Traffic Manager
Software. You remember that STMS is not supported on internal fibre controllers.
How do you exclude the internal controller from STMS?

A. Add an entry to the /kernel/drv/ssd.conf to set mpxio_disable=ues on the internal controller path and reboot.
B. Add an entry to the /kernel/drv/qlc.conf to set mpxio_disable=ues on the internal controller path and reboot.
C. Add an entry to the /kernel/drv/jnic.conf to set mpxio_disable=ues on the internal controller path and reboot.
D. Add an entry to the /kernel/drv/scsi_vhci.conf to set mpxio_disable=ues on the internal controller path and reboot.
Answer: B